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HW4

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Which of the following nations experienced average rates of economic growth of less than 2 percent over the last 100 years?
a.
Bangladesh
b.
Pakistan
c.
United Kingdom
d.
All of the above are correct.
 

 2. 

Last year real GDP in the imaginary nation of Oceania was 561.0 billion and the population was 2.2 million. The year before, real GDP was 500.0 billion and the population was 2.0 million. What was the growth rate of real GDP per person during the year?
a.
12 percent
b.
10 percent
c.
4 percent
d.
2 percent
 

 3. 

Which of the following would be considered physical capital?
a.
the refrigerators at Uncle Bob’s restaurant
b.
rivers on which goods are transported
c.
the skills and knowledge of a lawyer
d.
All of the above are correct.
 

 4. 

Which of the following is considered human capital?
a.
knowledge acquired from early childhood education programs
b.
knowledge acquired from grade school
c.
knowledge acquired from on-the-job training
d.
All of the above are correct.
 

 5. 

Which of the following would, by itself, reveal the most about a country’s standard of living?
a.
its level of capital
b.
the number of hours worked
c.
its availability of natural resources
d.
its productivity
 

 6. 

On a production function, as capital per worker increases, output per worker
a.
increases. This increase is larger at larger values of capital per worker.
b.
increases. This increase is smaller at larger values of capital per worker.
c.
decreases. This decrease is larger at larger value of capital per worker.
d.
decreases. This decrease is smaller at larger value of capital per worker.
 

 7. 

The catch-up effect refers to the idea that
a.
saving will always catch-up with investment spending.
b.
it is easier for a country to grow fast and so catch-up if it starts out relatively poor.
c.
population eventually catches-up with increased output.
d.
if investment spending is low, increased saving will help investment to "catch-up."
 

 8. 

All else equal, if there are diminishing returns, then if a country raised its capital by 100 units last year and by 100 units this year,
a.
the increase in output was greater for this year than last year.
b.
the increase in output was greater last year than this year.
c.
the increase in output is the same in both years.
d.
None of the above is necessarily correct.
 

 9. 

Which of the following is a financial-market transaction?
a.
A saver buys shares in a mutual fund.
b.
A saver deposits money into a credit union.
c.
A saver buys a bond a corporation has just issued so it can purchase capital.
d.
None of the above is correct.
 

 10. 

Suppose the issuer of a bond fails to pay some of the interest or principal that was promised to the bondholders.  This failure is referred to as a
a.
breach.
b.
default.
c.
risk.
d.
term failure.
 

 11. 

A stock index is
a.
an average of a group of stock prices.
b.
an average of a group of stock yields.
c.
a measure of the risk relative to the profitability of corporations.
d.
a report in a newspaper or other media outlet on the price of the stock and earnings of the corporation that issued the stock.
 

 12. 

The single most important piece of information about a stock is its
a.
term.
b.
dividend.
c.
daily volume.
d.
price.
 

 13. 

Which of the following are financial intermediaries?
a.
both banks and mutual funds
b.
banks but not mutual funds
c.
mutual funds but not banks
d.
neither banks or mutual funds
 

 14. 

The old adage, “Don’t put all your eggs in one basket,” is very similar to a modern bit of advice concerning financial matters:
a.
“Buy low-risk bonds.”
b.
“Use a medium of exchange.”
c.
“Diversify.”
d.
“Intermediate.”
 

 15. 

In a closed economy, what does (Y - T - C) represent?
a.
national saving
b.
government tax revenue
c.
public saving
d.
private saving
 

 16. 

Which of the following equations will always represent GDP in an open economy?
a.
S = I - G
b.
I = Y - C + G
c.
Y = C + I + G
d.
Y = C + I + G + NX
 

 17. 

For an imaginary closed economy, T = $5,000; S = $11,000; C = $50,000; and the government is running a budget deficit of $1,000.  Then
a.
private saving = $10,000 and GDP = $54,000.
b.
private saving = $10,000 and GDP = $58,000.
c.
private saving = $12,000 and GDP = $67,000.
d.
private saving = $12,000 and GDP = $72,000.
 

 18. 

A budget surplus is created if
a.
the government sells more bonds than it buys back.
b.
the government spends more than it receives in tax revenue.
c.
private saving is greater than zero.
d.
None of the above is correct.
 

 19. 

Other things the same, an increase in the interest rate
a.
would shift the demand for loanable funds to the right.
b.
would shift the demand for loanable funds to the left.
c.
would increase the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
d.
would decrease the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
 

 20. 

If the nominal interest rate is 6 percent and the real interest rate is 2 percent, then what is the inflation rate?
a.
8 percent
b.
4 percent
c.
3 percent
d.
None of the above is correct.
 

 21. 

Suppose a government that taxed all interest income changed its tax law so that the first $5,000 of a taxpayer’s interest income was tax free. This would shift the
a.
supply of loanable funds to the right, causing interest rates to fall.
b.
supply of loanable funds to the left, causing interest rates to rise.
c.
demand for loanable funds to the right, causing interest rates to rise.
d.
demand for loanable funds to the left, causing interest rates to fall.
 

 22. 

Which of the following is correct?
a.
In a closed economy equilibrium in the market for loanable funds occurs where saving = investment.
b.
Investment is the source for the supply of loanable funds.
c.
If there is a surplus in the market for loanable funds, the interest rate rises.
d.
All of the above are correct
 
 
Figure 1.   The figure shows two demand-for-loanable-funds curves and two supply-of-loanable-funds curves.

nar001-1.jpg
 

 23. 

Refer to Figure 1.   What, specifically, does the label on the vertical axis, i, represent?
a.
the nominal interest rate
b.
the real interest rate
c.
the inflation rate
d.
the dividend yield
 

 24. 

The amount of unemployment that an economy normally experiences is called the
a.
average rate of unemployment.
b.
natural rate of unemployment.
c.
cyclical rate of unemployment.
d.
typical rate of unemployment.
 

 25. 

Who is not included in the labor force?
a.
Kawanari, who is on temporary layoff
b.
Takuji, who has retired and is not looking for work
c.
Izumi, who does not have a job, but has applied for several in the last week
d.
None of the above is correct.
 

 26. 

The unemployment rate is defined as the percentage of
a.
those unemployed relative to those employed.
b.
the labor force that is unemployed.
c.
the adult population that is unemployed.
d.
the adult population that is unemployed or not in the labor force.
 

 27. 

The labor-force participation rate is computed as
a.
(Employed mc027-1.jpg Adult Population) mc027-2.jpg 100.
b.
(Employed mc027-3.jpg Labor Force) mc027-4.jpg 100.
c.
(Labor Force mc027-5.jpg Adult Population) mc027-6.jpg 100.
d.
(Adult Population mc027-7.jpg Labor Force) mc027-8.jpg 100.
 

 28. 

Pablo loses his job and immediately begins looking for another.  Other things the same, the unemployment rate
a.
increases and the labor-force participation rate decreases.
b.
and the labor-force participation rate both increase.
c.
increases and the labor-force participation rate is unaffected.
d.
is unaffected and the labor-force participation rate decreases.
 

 29. 

Carlota just graduated from UTPA.  In order to devote all her efforts to college, she didn’t hold a job.  She is going to cruise around Texas on her motorcycle for a month before she starts looking for work.  Other things the same, the unemployment rate
a.
increases and the labor-force participation rate decreases.
b.
and the labor-force participation rate both increase.
c.
increases and the labor-force participation rate is unaffected.
d.
and the labor-force participation rate are both unaffected.
 

 30. 

According to 2007 data on the U.S. population, which of the following groups of teenagers (ages 16-19) has the highest unemployment rate?
a.
white males
b.
white females
c.
black males
d.
black females
 

 31. 

Since 1960, the natural rate of unemployment in the U.S. has been between
a.
0.4 and 0.6 percent.
b.
4 and 6 percent.
c.
14 and 16 percent.
d.
40 and 60 percent.
 

 32. 

Over the past several decades in the United States, the labor-force participation rate of women has
a.
increased and the labor-force participation rate of men has increased.
b.
increased and the labor-force participation rate of men has decreased.
c.
decreased and the labor-force participation rate of men has increased.
d.
decreased and the labor-force participation rate of men has decreased.
 

 33. 

Unemployment that results because it takes time for workers to search for the jobs that best suit their tastes and skills is called
a.
the natural rate of unemployment.
b.
cyclical unemployment.
c.
structural unemployment.
d.
frictional unemployment.
 

 34. 

People who are unemployed because wages are, for some reason, set above the level that brings labor supply and demand into equilibrium are best classified as
a.
cyclically unemployed.
b.
structurally unemployed.
c.
frictionally unemployed.
d.
discouraged workers.
 

 35. 

Minimum-wage laws and unions are similar to each other but different from efficiency wages in that minimum-wage law and unions
a.
cause unemployment, but efficiency wages do not.
b.
cause the quantity of labor supplied to exceed the quantity of labor demanded, but efficiency wages do not.
c.
cause wages to be above the equilibrium level.
d.
prevent firms from lowering wages in the presence of a surplus of workers.
 

 36. 

Ellen decides to hire some additional workers for her vinyl siding factory. The equilibrium wage is $14 per hour. Efficiency wage theory suggests that it is reasonable for Ellen to offer
a.
$14 per hour.
b.
less than $14 per hour, since some people would be willing to work for less.
c.
less than $14 an hour to prevent shirking.
d.
more than $14 per hour, so as to attract a better pool of applicants.
 

 37. 

Fiat money
a.
has no intrinsic value.
b.
is backed by gold.
c.
has intrinsic value equal to its value in exchange.
d.
is any close substitute for currency such as checkable deposits.
 

 38. 

There is a
a.
short-run tradeoff between inflation and unemployment.
b.
short-run tradeoff between an increase in the money supply and inflation.
c.
long-run tradeoff between inflation and unemployment.
d.
long-run tradeoff between an increase in the money supply and inflation.
 

 39. 

A bank’s assets equal its liabilities under
a.
both 100-percent-reserve banking and fractional-reserve banking.
b.
neither 100-percent-reserve banking nor fractional-reserve banking.
c.
100-percent-reserve banking but not under fractional-reserve banking.
d.
fractional-reserve banking but not under 100-percent-reserve banking.
 

 40. 

A bank’s
a.
reserves and the deposits of its customers are both assets.
b.
reserves and the deposits of its customers are both liabilities.
c.
reserves are assets and the deposits of its customers are liabilities.
d.
reserves are liabilities and the deposits of its customers are assets.
 

 41. 

Which of the following lists two things that both increase the money supply?
a.
lower the discount rate, raise the reserve requirement
b.
lower the discount rate, lower the reserve requirement
c.
raise the discount rate, raise the reserve requirement
d.
raise the discount rate, lower the reserve requirement
 

 42. 

Bank runs
a.
will affect neither the money supply nor the money multiplier.
b.
are only a problem for insolvent banks.
c.
can be neither prevented nor mitigated by the Federal Reserve.
d.
are a problem because banks only hold a fraction of deposits as reserves.
 

 43. 

Imagine that the federal funds rate was below the level the Federal Reserve had targeted. To move the rate back towards it’s target the Federal Reserve could
a.
buy bonds. This buying would increase the money supply.
b.
buy bonds. This buying would reduce the money supply.
c.
sell bonds. This selling would increase the money supply.
d.
sell bonds. This selling would reduce the money supply.
 

 44. 

When the Fed conducts open-market sales,
a.
it sells Treasury securities, which increases the money supply.
b.
it sells Treasury securities, which decreases the money supply.
c.
it borrows from member banks, which increases the money supply.
d.
it lends money to member banks, which decreases the money supply.
 



 
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